2014年2月24日星期一

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Exam Code: 250-307
Exam Name: Symantec (Admin of Symantec Enterprise Vault 2007 for Exchange)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 172 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Within Provisioning Groups, what defines how archiving is performed for the groups defined?
A.status of the vault partition
B.size of the Exchange Server
C.the Mailbox Policy
D.the Provisioning Task
Correct:C

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NO.2 When creating a Directory database, where should the data and log locations be stored?
A.on the same disk as the Audit database
B.on the same disk as the Vault Store database
C.on the indexing server
D.on separate physical disks
Correct:D

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NO.3 Which three types of Outlook Web Access (OWA) security configurations does Enterprise Vault
support? (Choose three.)
A.basic authentication
B.SSL
C.forms based authentication
D.premium mode
E.DCOM
Correct:A B C

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NO.4 Which feature of Offline Vault is designed to reduce synchronization times?
A.auto downloading
B.age-based archiving
C.pre-emptive caching
D.multi-threaded caching
Correct:C

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NO.5 According to Enterprise Vault indexing best practices, one of two configuration steps should
be performed when index volumes are stored on a remote windows share.What are these two
configuration steps? (Choose two.)
A.disable Opportunistic locks from being granted through the remote server's registry
B.disable Opportunistic locks from being requested through the vault server's registry
C.disable Opportunistic locking on the vault server through ADSI edit
D.enable Opportunistic locks to be requested through the remote server's registry
E.enable Opportunistic locks to be granted through the vault server's registry
Correct:A B

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NO.6 Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) has been configured to run Journaling and Mailbox Archiving to
separate Vault Stores with Vault Store partitions that are configured on NTFS. Mailbox Archiving is
set to archive large items after one month and all items older than three months. Which items are
single instance stored between the Journal and Mailbox archives?
A.Zero items are single instance stored.
B.Large items, older than one month are single instance stored.
C.Items older than three months are single instance stored.
D.All items are single instance stored.
Correct:A

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NO.7 In addition to index locations, which Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) folders should be
excluded from Anti-Virus scanning on all EV servers? (Choose three.)
A.MSMQ storage location
B.C:\program files\Enterprise Vault\MOM
C.TEMP folders
D.Shopping folder
E.Convertors folder
Correct:A C D

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NO.8 A large organization wants to replace mail messages with shortcuts after archiving. However,
they want to configure shortcuts to retain only a portion of the original message. Which setting
will allow only a portion of each mail message to be used in the shortcut?
A.Display attachments as
B.Include message body
C.Message characters to include
D.Include link to archived item
Correct:C

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NO.9 Refer to the Exhibit. Phil, Sabina, and Anthony all work for the same company. The Symantec
Enterprise Vault Provisioning Groups and their members are as follows: Phil is part of the Sales
Organizational Unit. Sabina is part of the Marketing Organizational Unit. Anthony is part of the
Marketing Organizational Unit and also a manager of the marketing team. The Sales Group
consists of all members of the Sales Organizational Unit. The Marketing Group consists of all
members of the Marketing Organizational Unit. The Department Heads Group consists of all
managers. Assuming the Provisioning Groups are set up as shown in the exhibit, which statement
accurately describes the users and their resulting mailbox policies?
A.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, and both Sabina and Anthony will be part of the Marketing Group.
B.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, Sabina will be part of the Marketing Group, and Anthony will be part
of the Department Heads Group.
C.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, Sabina will be part of the Marketing Group, and Anthony will be part
of both the Marketing and the Department Heads Group.
D.Anthony will be part of the Department Heads Group, and both Sabina and Phil will be part of the
Marketing Group.
Correct:A

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NO.10 An organization has a requirement to archive email from Exchange. They want to provide users
the basic ability to search archived mail and attachment content, but with minimal space used for
this feature. Which statement describes how this would be accomplished?
A.Indexing levels should be set to Medium.
B.A Vault Store must be configured with Medium indexing.
C.All attachments are fully indexed regardless of index level.
D.The indexing schema must be changed from its default value.
Correct:A

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NO.11 Which two conditions must be met before a mailbox can be enabled? (Choose two.)
A.The mailbox must be placed in a Provisioning Group.
B.The Indexing Service must be running.
C.The Provisioning Task must have run.
D.The mailbox management process must be running.
E.The Mailbox Archiving Task must be restarted.
Correct:A C

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NO.12 Exchange mailboxes that are enabled for archiving are examined regularly and messages older
than a specified age are moved. Where are the messages moved to?
A.offsite partition
B.archive library
C.user-specific archive
D.collection site
Correct:C

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NO.13 Which two methods can be used to view the policy settings contained within the hidden
messages? (Choose two.)
A.access Enterprise Vault Diagnostics from within the Outlook client and go to Vault Information
B.locate the latest Exchange Provisioning Task Report under the Enterprise Vault Reports directory and
verify the latest policy settings that are being applied to
C.users
D.using the Enterprise Vault full client, right-click on the Inbox, go to Properties, Enterprise Vault tab, and
view the hidden message
E.Access the Enterprise Vault Diagnostics from within the Outlook client and view the client log
F.run a DTrace during the synchronization process with a filter on "Hidden Message" to view all settings
being set within the user's hidden message
Correct:A D

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NO.14 A Symantec Enterprise Vault monitoring report indicates that messages are no longer cleared
from the journal mailbox. What are three possible causes for this? (Choose three.)
A.Exchange Mailbox Archiving Task has shut down.
B.Exchange Journaling Task has shut down.
C.An administrator has modified permissions to the Exchange Server object in the Vault Administration
Console.
D.An administrator has modified permissions to the Exchange Journal mailbox.
E.An administrator has modified permissions to the journal archive.
Correct:B D E

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NO.15 Which two can interfere with the normal operation of indexing? (Choose two.)
A.real-time antivirus scanning of index locations
B.index locations on SAN storage
C.SchemaType that is set incorrectly
D./3GB switch in boot.ini
E.index location on network share
Correct:A D

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NO.16 How often does the Symantec Enterprise Vault Journal Archiving Task process the journal
mailbox?
A.every 30 seconds
B.every 60 seconds
C.every two minutes
D.every five minutes
Correct:B

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NO.17 What should be done when troubleshooting a mailbox synchronization problem? (Choose three.)
A.verify that the Task Controller Service is running
B.ensure that the Mailbox Archiving Task for Exchange Server is running
C.run EVverify.exe
D.check the relevant message queue
E.verify that the Indexing Service is running
Correct:A B D

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NO.18 Which two Web-based clients support the Symantec Enterprise Vault toolbar buttons, such as
Store in Vault and Delete from Vault? (Choose two.)
A.Safari
B.Outlook Web Access Basic
C.Outlook Web Access Premium
D.Firefox
E.Offline Archive Explorer
Correct:B C

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NO.19 What is the default indexing level for a Symantec Enterprise Vault site?
A.None
B.Brief
C.Medium
D.Full
Correct:C

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NO.20 When processing a scheduled archiving run, all processes appear to be functioning correctly
and no errors are logged. However no items are archived during the scheduled time frame. What
needs to be checked when troubleshooting this problem?
A.confirm the site schedule period is outside of normal business hours
B.confirm the archiving task "Run in report mode" option is deselected
C.confirm the archiving task is set to start automatically
D.confirm that the task settings enforces at least one item to be archived per run
Correct:B

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Exam Code: ST0-058
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that is directly accessed by a
filesystem?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. subvolume
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that contains plex objects?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a best practice when installing Dymanic Multi-pathing for Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. have a single physical path to storage
B. turn off the hardware cache on external storage
C. have all physical paths to storage enabled
D. physically remove all the HBAs from the server
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which action in the Veritas Enterprise Administrator console should you use to move a set of subdisks
from one dynamic disk group to a new dynamic disk group?
A. Split Dynamic Disk Group
B. Remove Disks from Dynamic Disk Group
C. Move Dynamic Disk Group Objects
D. Join Dynamic Disk Group
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout where data is arranged both
sequentially and contiguously within a single plex?
A. concatenation
B. striping
C. mirroring
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which advantage does the FlashSnap feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. hardware-independent, point-in-time copies of data
B. hardware-independent, synchronous remote copies of data
C. fast recovery of disk group configuration
D. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that is a structured collection of
subdisks that represents one copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. dynamic disk
D. dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows (SFW) component that represents the
available space that SFW can use to assign to volumes?
A. public region
B. private region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which command can you use to set the read policy on a plex in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. vxvol
B. vxplex
C. vxassist
D. vxedit
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three advantages does the Veritas Volume Replicator feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1
for Windows provide? (Select three.)
A. hardware-independent copies of data that are consistent
B. dynamic bandwidth throttling
C. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
D. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
E. replication over multiple TCP connections
Answer: ABE

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NO.11 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout that achieves redundancy by
striping data with parity across multiple disks?
A. RAID 5
B. striped mirroring
C. concatenation
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which advantage does the VxCache feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. improved performance of dynamic volumes
B. hardware-independent, up-to-date remote copies of data
C. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
D. fast recovery of disk group configurations
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which advantage is provided by the Write-order Fidelity feature of Veritas Volume Replicator in Veritas
Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. consistent secondary volumes
B. fast resynchronization of mirrored secondary volumes
C. RAID 5 logging on secondary volumes
D. fast updates to secondary volumes
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that stores information about
virtual objects?
A. private region
B. public region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the smallest unit of storage in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. subdisk
B. plex
C. volume
D. partition
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which advantage does the hot relocation feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows
provide?
A. rebuilding of redundancy when there is a disk failure
B. automatic synchronization of replicated data
C. fast synchronization of RAID 5 volumes after a system crash
D. optimized synchronization of stale volume data
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which advantage is provided by the SmartMove feature in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. reduction of mirror synchronization time
B. rebuilding of redundancy in the case of a disk failure
C. automatic failover in the case of a path failure
D. consistent secondary volumes using Veritas Volume Replicator
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is one difference between a basic disk and a dynamic disk?
A. private region
B. application data
C. volume
D. resides on a single plex
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that holds a single complete
copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. subdisk
D. LUN
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. ability to grow volumes online
C. control of volumes across heterogeneous systems
D. fast resynchronization of mirrored volumes after a system crash
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-074
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS))
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Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 If you have multiple Notification Servers in your environment how many CMDBs are required?
A. One CMDB for each Notification Server
B. One CMDB for all Notification Servers
C. One CMDB for all Symantec Management Consoles
D. One CMDB for each Symantec Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the source of the information in the Resource Manager?
A. Configuration Management Database
B. Altiris data classes
C. SQL Server Master database
D. Configuration menu
Answer: A

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NO.3 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. By granting the permissions to appropriate Organizational Views and Groups to a security role.
B. By including the appropriate filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target's rules.
C. By replacing the filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections.
D. By creating multiple Organizational Views and Groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which feature characterizes the decentralized management model?
A. Autonomous groups within your organization
B. A common maintenance schedule
C. A single data center
D. Limited number of remote sites
Answer: A

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NO.5 What Symantec Management system feature is used to off load processing from a Symantec
Management Platform?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Replication
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Choose two.)
A. Information related to the configuration of managed computers
B. An inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C. Software packages to install applications on managed computers
D. Symantec Management Platform core application settings
E. Settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.7 How are permissions assigned to resources in Notification Server 7?
A. Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B. Organizational Views
C. Access Control List (ACL)
D. Active Directory
Answer: B

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NO.8 What must be enabled for a collection of Notification Servers to share common configuration settings
and data?
A. Hierarchy Feature
B. Inventory Forwarding
C. Client Policy Files
D. Site Maintenance Feature
Answer: A

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NO.9 How does Notification Server handle inventory and event data after reaching the Event Queues?
A. Client Message Dispatcher -> DataLoader -> OLEDB -> CMDB
B. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> CMDB
C. Client Message Dispatcher -> NSE Processor -> CMDB
D. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> XML -> CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which feature characterizes the centralized management model?
A. A single IT management team
B. Language barriers between sites
C. A large company with subsidiaries
D. Several data centers
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which service monitors the event queue?
A. Dispatcher Service
B. Receiver Service
C. Notification Service
D. SQL Service
Answer: A

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NO.12 What troubleshooting tool is used to analyze SQL queries and .NET code blocks running in the
Notification Server and associated processes?
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Microsoft Perfmon
D. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two troubleshooting tools are installed with the Symantec Management Platform? (Choose two.)
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Remote Altiris Agent Diagnostics
D. Microsoft Perfmon
E. WireShark Network Protocol Analyzer
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Which server role will conflict with the Notification Server?
A. Terminal Server
B. PXE Server
C. Domain Controller
D. FTP Server
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which Altiris component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A. Package Server
B. Task Server
C. Site Server
D. PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which item is true when migrating from Notification Server 6 to Notification Server 7?
A. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same server
B. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same database
C. Additional SQL, operating system, and Notification Server licenses are required
D. .NET 3.5, SQL Server 2005, and Windows 2003 must be installed for the migration to continue
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which pair contains Notification Server Event (NSE) queues?
A. Large and Small
B. Priority and Express
C. Fast and Slow
D. Default and System
Answer: C

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NO.18 What will occur if a resource is added to a second organizational group when it already belongs to
another organizational group within the same organizational view?
A. A duplicate resource will be created and given a new Globally Unique Identifier (GUID).
B. The resource will be removed from the first organizational group and placed in the second.
C. The resource will be listed twice in any target that includes either organizational group.
D. A resource association record will be created that links the two organizational groups.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which Notification Server 7 process parses the Notification Server Event (NSE) into SQL Statements?
A. DataLoader
B. Dispatcher
C. Event Router
D. Event Queues
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which Symantec Management system feature is used to reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), that
is, increase the efficiency of a single IT administrator?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Task Service
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.0 with Notification Server)
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Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What are two ways that permissions are set within the Security Role Manager? (Select two.)
A. security role membership
B. NT rights assignment
C. inheritance
D. explicitly granted
E. domain membership
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which component contains the core service of the Symantec Management Platform?
A. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. Altiris Agent
C. Site Service
D. Notification Server
Answer: D

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NO.3 Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations imported from
Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500 workstations. The Marketing
Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results, they find that there is an overlap of
100 workstations.
Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console? (Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit.
What is the effect of setting the scoped option when building a report query?
A. The report results will be limited to the resources that the user has permissions to view.
B. The users will be unable to bring up the Resource Manager by right-clicking on a row in the report
results
C. The available data classes will be limited to those that the user has permissions to view.
D. The users will be unable to drill-down to lower levels when viewing the report results.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which permissions do new security roles have?
A. the same permissions as the Symantec Administrators role
B. the same permissions as the Symantec Guests role
C. the same permissions as the Symantec Supervisors role
D. none
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Console
C. Package Service
D. Task Service
Answer: A

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NO.8 During installation of the Symantec Management Platform 7.0 (SMP), an administrator specifies an
account created for SMP to be used as the Application Identity. When the administrator tries to connect to
the console from their workstation they receive an Access Denied message.
Why is the administrator's access denied?
A. The account used to install is the only account in the Symantec Administrators Group.
B. The account used during installation has NOT been added to the Domain Administrators Group.
C. The system administrator is using an account that is not a member of the Domain Administrators
Group.
D. The console must be run from a terminal services session of the Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and
stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.10 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has cloned the Daily Event report. What must the administrator change to create a
Weekly Event report?
A. edit the Query Parameters to show a week of data
B. edit thedateadd(day, -1 @cutoffdate) section
C. edit the Resolved Query to show a week of data
D. edit the views on the Views tab
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to theAltiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.12 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. by including appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B. by replacing filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secured data
classes C. by creating multiple organizational views and groups that contain appropriate subset of
resources
D. by granting permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
Answer: D

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NO.13 How does the Symantec Management Console help keep reports secure and scoped?
A. by enforcing permissions that determine which reports users can view
B. by scoping privileges that determine which reports users can view
C. by using report filters so that only specific report data is displayed
D. by promptingAltiris Agents for log in credentials before viewing reports
Answer: A

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NO.14 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator created a report that returns the status of computers.
Which menu item should the administrator choose to compare the status from month to month?
A. Snapshot
B. Web Part
C. Static Filter
D. XML File
Answer: A

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NO.15 Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?
A. to save the results for later reference
B. to use in a resource target
C. to use in a portal page
D. to be able to e-mail the results
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database
(CMDB)?
A. Log Viewer
B. Reports
C. Notification Server
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.17 A manager is attempting to run a report that identifies users who have Microsoft Office and Adobe
software installed, but the report fails to run What is the first thing the administrator should do?
A. check the report for errors
B. check the manager's permissions
C. remove security from the report
D. clone and modify the report
Answer: B

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NO.18 The IT staff for a large corporation is distributed among its many physical sites. The Symantec
Management Platform administrator needs to ensure that the local IT staff for any given location only has
rights to manage computers at that location and not at any other location.
Which two items must the administrator create and assign the appropriate rights to? (Select two.)
A. filter
B. organizational group
C. site
D. organizational view
E. collection
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 An Administrator wants to customize the default Symantec Administrators security role for use as a new
template for future console administrators Upon selection, the options are grayed out and inaccessible.
Which action should the administrator take to modify these privileges?
A. break inheritance to parent roles
B. take ownership of the role
C. clone the role and modify the copy
D. use a different credential with more permissions
Answer: C

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NO.20 The IT Department has been experiencing frequent turnover requiring administrators to modify security
role membership on an individual user basis An administrator wants to take advantage of membership
assignments established when new users are created in the network environment and connect them to
security roles. Which resource can be used in the Membership tab to allow user assignments to be
managed independently of the Security Role Manager?
A. Active Directory Security groups
B. Active Directory organizational units
C. Altiris Security Users
D. Altiris Security Groups
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-12X
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Unix(STS))
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A Veritas Cluster Server design calls for a failover database service group and a failover middleware
service group to be dependent on each other such that the database and middleware are always running
on the same system.
Which type of service group dependency satisfies this design requirement?
A. online local
B. online remote
C. online global
D. online together
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are adding a system named Systemc to an existing two-system cluster.
What must you do atter installing Veritas Cluster Server and configuring cluster communications on the
new system?
A. run hastart -newnode on the new system
B. run hasys -frorce System C on the new system
C. run haclus -adonode SystemC on any system
D. run hastart on the new system
Answer: D

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NO.3 whicn feature of Veritas Cluster Server allows you to keep applications in separate groups while still
allowing control of the order they start?
A. service group dependencies
B. complementary events
C. replicated data clusters
D. notifications
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which network resource combination would you use for failovers of virtual IP addresses across
interfaces on a single system when NICs are connected to different subnets?
A. IP/NIC
B. IPMultiNIC/MultiNICA
C. IPMultiNICB/MultiNICB
D. IPMultiNICC/MultiNICC
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have a three-system cluster.
The cluster runs an application that depends on a database.
The application and database do not need to run on the same system.
If the database faults, you want the application to continue to run, unless the database cannot be
restarted on another system. Which type of service group dependency do you create to ensure this
behavior?
A. online global son, where the database is the parent
B. online global soft, where the application is the parent
C. online global firm, where the application is the parent
D. online global firm, where the database is the parent
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a characteristic of Veritas Cluster Server service group dependencies?
A. Each parent service group can link with only three child service groups; however, a child service group
is not limited to the number of links to parent service groups.
B. If a parent service group with an online local firm group dependency faults, it will take the
corresponding child
C. A child service group will remain online if the dependent parent service group with an online local firm
group dependency faults.
D. A service group cannot be a child service group if its parent service group is a child of another group.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the location of the main Veritas Cluster Server configuration file?
A. /op/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
B. /etc/VRTSvcs/conf/
C./etc/VRTSvcs/conf/config/
D. /op/VRTSvcs/confi
Answer: C

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NO.8 A legacy managed host is a system managed by Storage Foundation Management Server and runs
__ .
A. Storage Foundation 4.x
B. Foundation Suite 3.x
C. Storage Replicator 4.x
D. Veritas Enterprise Administrator 3.x
Answer: A

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NO.9 What should be expected during a failover when a service group is partially ONLINE?
A. The service group will become fully ONLINE on the target system.
B. The service group will become partially ONLINE on the target system.
C. The service group will go OFFLINE and remain OFFLINE.
D. The service group will become OFFLINE temporarily on the target system.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which resource is NOT considered by Veritas Cluster Server when determining whether a service
group is online or not?
A. onOnly
B. OnOff
C. failover
D. parallel
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are designing a large Veritas Cluster Server cluster. One of the requirements from the service
level agreement is that applications will be automatically moved from one system to another if the first
system's processor usage exceeds a configured threshold value.
Which component do you incorporate into the design to accomplish this?
A. ToleranceLimit service group attribute
B. Load failover policy
C. cpuusage trigger
D. UseCPU cluster attribute
Answer: C

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NO.12 What does the Veritas Cluster Server Cluster Manager Web Console require for high availability?
A. notification set to 0
B. a Microson Windows workstation
C. the vcsweb user account
D. a virtuallP address
Answer: D

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NO.13 How do you customize Veritas Cluster Server default behavior to alert someone whenever there is only
one heartbeat in a Veritas Cluster Server cluster?
A. The preinstalled violation trigger does this with no customization required.
B. Install the injeopardy trigger and customize it to perform the required alerting.
C. Configure the notifier to execute a customized script to perform the required alerting.
D. Develop a custom resource type and agent to monitor the Veritas Cluster Server heartbeat resources.
Answer: B

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NO.14 what are two characteristics of a nard service group dependency? (choose two.)
A. Both parent and child groups fail over if a critical resource in the child group faults.
B. Only online local hard dependencies are supported.
C. If a critical resource in the parent group faults, the child group is taken offline before the parent group.
D. Bringing the parent online is allowed if the child is offline.
E. Only two parents and one child o group can be configured in a nard dependency.
Answer: A B

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NO.15 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on system node13. You now need to remove this node from the
cluster configuration. When you attempt to do this, you get an error message. What could cause this
error?
A. One or more system List attributes still contains node13.
B. Veritas Cluster Server must be completely shut down on all nodes.
C. The LL T driver on node13 was not stopped.
D. The GAB daemon on node13 was not stopped.
Answer: A

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NO.16 During a test of a NIC resource, the Veritas Cluster Server engine log indicates that the service group
and the IP resource enter the FAULTED state on all systems in the cluster. The NIC resource enters the
ONLINE state atter the root cause of the fault is corrected.
Which default attribute setting allows the service group to attempt to start without manual intervention?
A. AutoStart
B. AutoClear
C. AutoRestart
D. AutoFailover
Answer: C

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NO.17 You stopped Veritas Cluster Server on a system and completely removed the system from the Veritas
Cluster Server configuration. You now need to stop the GAB driver without shutting down the system.
Which command accomplishes this?
A. gabconfig-U
B. gabetl stop
C. gab-stop
D. gabdaemon uninstall
Answer: A

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NO.18 You have a service group dependency:
If the child group faults, the parent group is taken offline. If the parent group faults, the child group remains
online. Which type of dependency is this an example of?
A. firm
B. hard
C. son
D. remote
Answer: A

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NO.19 You need to remove the system named node04 from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster.
What is the command to failover any service groups running, then stop Veritas Cluster Server on that
system?
A. hastop -sys node04 -evacuate
B. haevac -remove -sys node04
C. haconf -stop -evac -sys node04
D. hasys node04 -local -failover -stop
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two are valid settings for FailoverPolicy? (Choose two.)
A. priority
B. RoundRobin
C. Order
D. Failover
E. SystemUst
Answer: A B

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Exam Code: ASC-093
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 What needs to be done with unused Network Interface Cards (NIC) on the Enforce server?
A. They need to be configured to utilize Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
B. They need to be disabled.
C. They need to be configured with a static IP address.
D. They need to be assigned with 127.0.0.1 as their IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

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NO.3 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

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NO.4 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

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NO.5 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

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NO.6 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

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NO.7 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

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NO.8 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is a best practice to be used for monitoring mail traffic in an environment that uses Transport
Layer Security (TLS) for their outbound email?
A. deploy Network Prevent for Email
B. turn TLS off on the outbound email server
C. import the TLS certificate from the outbound email server onto the Network Monitor detection server
D. Data Loss Prevention is not capable of viewing TLS traffic.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-114
Exam Name: Symantec (PGP Universal Server 3.0 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 240 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Bob, an external user, has just downloaded and installed PGP Satellite from a PGP Universal Server
managing the example.com domain. Which of the following statements is true?
A. PGP Satellite will encrypt all email Bob sends to any domain.
B. PGP Satellite will only encrypt email that Bob sends to the example.com domain.
C. Bob is added to the example.com PGP Universal Server as an internal user.
D. It is now too late for Bob to change his delivery preference.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An Additional Decryption Key (or ADK):
A. Is often split into shares for security.
B. Can be used for decryption of files and emails.
C. Should only be used in situations clearly defined by an organization's security policies.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 ADKs are only used for Messaging.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 The application whitelist only works if the files are stored in a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the newest standard for secure message processing?
A. PGP/MIME
B. PGP Partitioned
C. SMIME
D. RSA
Answer: A

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NO.6 When Bob receives his first Web Messenger message, one of his options for securing future
messages could be "PGP Universal Satellite".
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 The Verified Directory is required to receive encrypted mail.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following PGP Desktop utilities has a command line interface?
A. PGP NetShare
B. PGP Zip
C. PGP Virtual Disk
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following will cause Silent Enrollment to fail.?
A. Directory Synchronization is enabled and there are multiple directories enabled.
B. LDAP Enrollment is enabled but the Bind DN has been entered correctly.
C. Key Reconstruction is enabled.
D. The Windows username / password are different than the LDAP credentials for the user.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Advanced user mode for PGP NetShare is the recommended method to encrypt all files.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.11 It is possible to prevent a folder from being PGP NetShare protected.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.12 The WDE Disk Administrator Passphrase allows an administrator to?
A. Log into the PGP Universal Server.
B. Authenticate at BootGuard on any system in the Consumer Policy.
C. Change a user WDRT from the server.
D. Run a bypass on the user system even if it is powered down.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Clustering can be done during or after installation and setup of a PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 Dictionaries can be used to add users to Consumer Groups or used for Mail Policy processing, but
they cannot be used to configure a Consumer Policy.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.15 What methods can be used by Web Messengers to authenticate to an inbox?
A. LDAP, Dictionary or Passphrase
B. Token, Passphrase, or TPM
C. Passphrase, LDAP, Radius
D. Ignition key, LDAP, Radius
Answer: C

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NO.16 PGP Desktop is required to use the Out Of Mail Stream (OOMS) feature of PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.17 Your customer's PGP Universal Server is running in Learn Mode and they want to automatically create
external users. How could this be done?
A. By simply sending email to external users (with a no-key policy of Smart Trailer or Web Messenger).
B. By configuring Directory Synchronization to import external users? keys.
C. By enabling the Verified Directory service (so that external users can manually upload their keys).
D. It is not possible to automatically create external users in Learn Mode.
Answer: D

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NO.18 If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A. The file is decrypted
B. The file remains encrypted
C. The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D. If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E. It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.19 PGP Desktop can perform SMIME and / or PGP encryption.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.20 There are several administrative levels available for logging into PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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