2014年2月24日星期一

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Exam Code: VCP-510
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 310 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.9 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.12 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.15 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.16 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.20 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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Exam Code: VCPVCD510
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - IaaS Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 171 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An administrator has scheduled a report to run at 8 PM nightly and has configured a number of
recipients to receive the report. After the report runs, the administrator discovers that a link to the report
was sent to the recipients, not the report itself. Why did this occur?
A. vCenter Chargeback cannot support attachments via email.
B. The report size was larger than the size limit configured for the SMTP server.
C. vCenter Chargevack was configured to send links instead of attachments.
D. The SMTP server was configured not to accept attachments.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator needs to store a multi-VM vApp in a vCloud so that others can easily deploy.
Where should the administrator store this item?
A. In the Content Management System.
B. In an organization catalog.
C. On the vCD cell s local storage.
D. On the primary data store.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which core vSphere feature can be used to improve the availability of vShield components?
A. VM Monitoring
B. vCenter Server Heartbeat
C. Fault Tolerance
D. HA Monitoring
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
ACME has a Web Server virtual machine with an IP Address of 192.168.0.27. It is not responding to
incoming customer requests on either internal or external networks. The network is an External Routed
network with the firewall rules displayed in the exhibit.
Which configuration change would correct this behavior?
A. Enable the Outgoing Web Services rule.
B. Enable the ACME External Internet rule
C. Change the IP Address of the Outgoing Web Services rule to 192.168.0.17
D. Delete the Outgoing Web Services rule
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator receives the error:
Unable to create vShield Edge VM
while using the Reset Network function on vApp or Organizational Networks. What is the cause of this
error?
A. The vApp or Organizational Network name is too long.
B. The vShield Edge VM resource pool is out of resources.
C. The vShield Manager appliance is not registered to vCD.
D. The vShield Manager appliance is not registered to vCenter.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator needs to allow traffic between two different networks within the same
Organization..Traffic on the internal network cannot be compromised.
Where must static routes be configured to enable this functionality?
A. On the source Internal network to the target External Routed network
B. On the source External Direct network to the target network
C. On the source Internal network to the target External Direct network
D. On the source External Routed network to the target network
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A virtual machine in the Finance Organization must communicate with a virtual machine in the Sales
Organization. The virtual machine in the Finance Organization has been defined with an external IP
address. A static route has been created on the Finance Organization Network.
For communication to successfully occur between these two virtual machines, how many vShield Edge
devices and how many firewall rules would need to be deployed (Choose Two)?
A. 3 vShield Edge devices
B. 2 vShield Edge devices
C. 3 Firewall rules
D. 2 Firewall rules
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator needs to configure a vSphere environment to support a vCloud network architecture
providing for automatic provisioning of network pools.
Which step must be taken in order to successfully configure Port Group Isolation?
A. vShield Edge component must be added between the External Network and the virtual switch.
B. VLAN/PVLAN configuration information must be added to the configuration.
C. A vShield Edge component must be added between the Unprotected Network and the virtual switch.
D. The Virtual Standard Switch must be replaced with a vSphere Distributed Switch.
Answer: D

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NO.10 An administrator is unable to connect to the Internet from within the cloud..The administrator suspects
the firewall setting is causing the issue.
Which troubleshooting step should the user take first?
A. Open Configure Services for the External Network
B. Open Configure Services for the External Routed Organizational network
C. Open Configure Services for the vShield Edge device
D. Open Configure Services for the External Direct Organizational network
Answer: B

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NO.11 A virtual machine in the QA Organization must communicate with a virtual machine in the Research
Organization. When creating a Static Route, which two pieces of information are required (Choose Two)?
A. The Classless Interdomain Routing (CIDR) address
B. The address of the next hop
C. The subnet address of the target network
D. The address of the target vShield device
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 An administrator is updating the system SMTP server settings.
Where will the administrator change this setting?
A. The Email Server settings in the Alerts section of the Administration page.
B. The Email section in the System settings section of the Administration page.
C. The Email Server settings in the Servers section of the Administration page.
D. The Email Services configuration file on each vCD Cell.
Answer: B

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NO.13 A vApp is deployed within an internal vApp Network. One VM in the vApp is configured to use NAT.
The vApp is converted to a vApp template and deployed to the Organization. After deploying the vApp,
network connectivity does not function as expected.
What explains this behavior?
A. vApps using NAT require the use of Network Pools.
B. The vApp should be connected to an External Direct network.
C. All virtual machines in a vApp must use the same NAT settings.
D. The vApp NAT configuration settings are lost when a vApp is deployed.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A vCloud Service Provider is attempting to monitor a vCloud implementation. The service is unavailable
from the Organization network. Firewall rules on the vShield Edge device are set correctly. Why would the
service be unavailable?
A. IP Masquerading rules are not set.
B. NAT is not automatically assigned.
C. Static routing is not enabled.
D. DHCP is not scoped properly.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Where must an administrator place sysprep files in order for Guest OS Customizations to work on all
supported versions of Windows?
A. On the VM during vApp creation.
B. On the vCD management cluster.
C. In a specific location on all vCD Cells.
D. In a specific location on the vCenter Servers.
Answer: C

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NO.16 An administrator needs to configure a vShield Edge device that allows for incoming pings.
Which two steps would allow incoming pings? (Choose two.)
A. The rule must have the Log network traffic for firewall rule setting checked.
B. A rule must be created that allows for outgoing traffic and the UDP protocol.
C. The default rule must be set to Disable.
D. A rule must be created that allows for incoming traffic and the ICMP protocol.
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 A user has been assigned a single external IP address that connects to the Internet. The user has a
vApp containing 4 VMs deployed in the Organization VDC. Which technology will allow a user s VMs to
accept incoming traffic the Internet?
A. Firewall Rules
B. Port Forwarding
C. IP Translation
D. 1:1 NAT
Answer: B

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NO.18 An administrator is auditing IP address use in a specific Organizational Network.
Where will the administrator find this information?
A. The administrator can run a Global IP Allocation report
B. The information can be located in the IP Allocation properties for the specific Organizational Network
C. The information can be located in the System Properties of the Organizational Network
D. The administrator can run an IP Allocation report for the specific Organizational Network
Answer: B

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NO.19 Due to diminishing capacity, an ESXi host is added to a cluster that supports a cloud environment.
A vCloud Administrator notices that newly created VMs created through vCD are not utilizing the host
resource. What is the reason for this?
A. An inventory synchronization was not performed after the new host was added to the cluster.
B. The host was not manually added to an organizational vDC before it was utilized.
C. The host was not prepared to be part of the vCD environment.
D. DRS was not enabled on the cluster providing resources to the vCD environment.
Answer: C

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NO.20 An administrator needs a list of all hosts and statuses across all Provider vDCs in a vCloud Director
environment. Where will the administrator find this information?
A. In the Hosts section of the vSphere Resources pane of the System tab
B. In the Host Status report of vCenter Chargeback
C. In the Hosts section of the vSphere Resources pane of the Administration tab
D. In the Host settings section of each organization
Answer: A

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Exam Code: VCAC510
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Cloud Exam (VCA-Cloud))
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Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You need a solution for your burst utilization without paying for unused capacity during
non-peak hours. Which vCloud product will solve this problem?
A. vCloud APIs
B. vCloud Automation Center
C. vCloud Networking and Security
D. vCloud Connector
Answer: D

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Reference:http://cloud.idglabs.net/?p=1860

NO.2 You have been asked to install and verify network security for the multiple tenants in your
public cloud. Which of the following will you primarily work with to secure your tenants?
A. vCloud Networking and Security
B. vSphere Distributed Switch
C. vShield Zones
D. vCloud Security Server
Answer: A

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Reference:https://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/products/vcns/vmware-vcloud-networking-andsecur
ity-overview.pdf(page 2)z

NO.3 Your manager asks you to explain the relationship between vCloud Director and vSphere.
How do you explain this to him?
A. vCloud does not leverage ESXi or vCenter
B. vCloud leverages ESXi, but not vCenter
C. vCloud leverages ESXi and vCenter
D. vCloud leverages vCenter, but not ESXi
Answer: C

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Explanation:
vCloud leverages ESXi and vCenter (vCenter is required to administrate your virtual
infrastructure,certain tasks will have to be done first in vCenter, such as creating a HA/DRS cluster,
configuring the distributed virtual switch, adding hosts, etc.vCloud Director will talk to your vCenter
servers.To create a cloud you'll need both vCenter and vCD.)

NO.4 Your company has just undertaken a new research project where network security is critical.
As you are configuring your private cloud to support this new project, which vCloud Networking and
Security feature will you be setting up to provide the required security?
A. NAT
B. Private VLAN
C. Endpoint
D. Firewall
Answer: D

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Reference:http://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/ 2013 / 06 /vcloud-networking-and-security-5-1-appfirew
all-best-practices.html

NO.5 You have been tasked with setting up various automation features in your private cloud. You
know that vCloud Automation Center is going to be the perfect tool for the job. What are the
available purchase options for vCloud Automation Center?
A. It is available with vSphere or vCloud Enterprise.
B. It is available on a stand-alone basis or with vCloud Enterprise.
C. It is only available on a stand-alone basis.
D. It is only available with vCloud Enterprise.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/in/products/vcloud-automation-center/pricing.html

NO.6 Your manager is concerned that, even in the cloud, provisioning hundreds or thousands of
VMs will result in a lot of redundant storage use. You explain that you can minimize the use of
redundant storage with vCloud by making use of which of the following features?
A. Snapshots
B. Fast Provisioning
C. Templates
D. Storage DRS
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-Architecting-vCloud-WP .pdf

NO.7 You have Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in place to protect critical vCloud servers in the event
of a disaster. Over lunch, a manager asks you why SRM is configured to protect only the vCloud
servers and not the actual department workload VMs. What do you tell her?
A. The workload VMs are on fenced networks, which can't be failed over.
B. SRM can't fail over the workload VMs, but it is a simple matter to restart them once the vCloud
servers have failed over.
C. Workload VM failover is implied when you failover the vCloud infrastructure servers.
D. vCloud workloads can be migrated with vCloud Director once it has failed over and so are not
required to be protected with SRM.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.yellow-bricks.com/ 2012 / 02 /13 /vcloud-director-infrastructure-resiliencysolutio
n/

NO.8 You're concerned a physical host outage will impact running VMs in your cloud environment.
Which of the following vSphere features will help recover from a failed ESXi host?
A. vSphere High Availability
B. vMotion
C. Storage vMotion
D. Distributed Resource Scheduler
Answer: A

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Reference:http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51 /topic/com.vmware.ICbase/PDF/vsphere-esxivcente
r-server-51-availability-guide.pdf(page 9, see drs and vmotion integration, last sentence)

NO.9 An administrator is considering a private cloud solution. The existing environment contains a
number of print servers and a systems monitoring server. These applications are considered which
type of workload?
A. Elastic
B. Infrastructure
C. Transient
D. Management
Answer: B

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NO.10 You received an email from your cloud team's senior technical architect asking you to
implement snapshots in your cloud where it makes sense to do so. You ask the architect to clarify
where in your cloud it would make the most sense to use snapshots. Which of the following is the
most likely answer they would give you?
A. Catalogs: To back out any unauthorized changes
B. Production web servers: To provide a backup of each day's changes
C. Development VMs: To roll back code updates
D. vApps: To roll back to their original deployment state
Answer: C

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Reference:http://searchvmware.techtarget.com/definition/VMware-snapshot

NO.11 As part of setting up your company's disaster recovery plan, the technical project manager
has identified the need to synchronize storage used by your cloud VMs to the remote disaster
recovery site. Which of the following will you use to setup storage synchronization?
A. vCloud Connector
B. vSphere Replication
C. Datastore Clusters
D. vCloud Automation Center
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/business-continuity/disaster-recovery

NO.12 You are asked to explain to your company's technical staff the vCloud feature used to logically
group users and resources so that each department can have its own virtual datacenter. Which of
the following are you describing to your staff?
A. Organizations
B. Clusters
C. Folders
D. Pods
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-Architecting-vCloud-WP .pdf

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Exam Code: TB0-116
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO Enterprise Message Service 6 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 134 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What are two valid queue properties? (Choose two.)
A. export
B. channel
C. exclusive
D. maxRedelivery
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Given the following set of values: ?sess is a Session object ?dest is a Destination object ?nolocal is a
boolean variable What is the correct way to create a message consumer with a selector?
A. String selector = "JMSCorrelationID=3";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest,selector,nolocal);
B. String selector = "JMSCorrelationID='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest,selector,nolocal);
C. String selector = "JMSCorrelationID='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest, nolocal, selector);
D. String selector = " 'JMSCorrelationID'='3'";
MessageConsumer consumer = sess.createConsumer(dest, selector, nolocal);
Answer: B

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NO.3 A TIBCO EMS Server (mystore) has the following configuration in the stores.conf and queues.conf
files: stores.conf [mystore] type=file file=mystore.db mode=sync [mystore] type=dbstore
dbstore_driver_url=jdbc:sqlserver://sqlsrv_1:3415;databaseName=sysmeta
dbstore_driver_username=admin dbstore_driver_password=admin123 queues.conf queue1
store=mystore Which statement is true when PERSISTENT messages are published to queue1?
A. The server decides at runtime which store to use.
B. The server picks themystore of file type because it was configured first.
C. The server fails to start because there are two stores configured with the same name.
D. The server picks themystore of database type because that overrides the previously configured
filestore.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about a fault-tolerant configuration of TIBCO EMS where the primary
server heartbeat has stopped? (Choose two.)
A. The backup server waits for its activation interval.
B. The backup server tries to retrieve the information from shared storage.
C. The backup server assumes control if theft_weight parameter is equal to 1.
D. Ifft_activation = ft_heartbeat x 5, the backup server becomes the primary server.
E. Theserver_timeout_server_connection parameter is used by the backup server before
attempting a switchover.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What action is taken when the command purge all queues foo.* is sent on the TIBCO EMS
Administrator Tool?
A. All messages in all queues are deleted.
B. All messages present in the queue called foo.* are deleted.
C. All user-created queues whose names match the pattern foo.* are deleted.
D. All messages present in all the queues whose names matched the pattern foo.* are deleted.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three message delivery modes are valid for TIBCO EMS? (Choose three.)
A. PERSISTANT
B. NON_PERSISTENT
C. RELIABLE_DELIVERY
D. CERTIFIED_DELIVERY
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Server R defines a global queue named Q1. R is also the owner of Q1. Servers P and S define routed
queues Q1@R. The servers P, R, and S are connected by routes. Which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. When a message is sent from server P to queue Q1, P forwards the message to the home queue on
server R.
B. Messages are available to local and remote consumers even before the message reaches the home
queue.
C. If Server P or the route connection from P to R fails, a consumer application of server P will not be able
to receive messages from Q1 until the servers resume communication.
D. When a message is sent from server S to Q1 and the route is not connected, the message is not
delivered, and the client application receives the exception DESTINATION_NOT_AVAILABLE.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 What are two valid TIBCO EMS Administrator Tool commands? (Choose two.)
A. set server ft=enabled
B. set server routing=enabled
C. set server authorization=enabled
D. set serverdetailed_statistics=NONE
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which operations ensure that the user usr gets permission to only subscribe to a topic tpc and browse
the queue que?
A. add memberusr grp
grant queue que grp browse
grant topic tpc usr subscribe
B. add membergrp usr
grant queue que usr browse
grant topic tpc grp subscribe
C. add memberusr grp
grant queue que usr browse
grant topic tpc usr subscribe
D. add membergrp usr
grant queue que usr browse
grant topic tpc grp subscribe,publish
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about access control and bridges? (Choose two.)
A. A bridge automatically has permission to send to its target destination(s).
B. Message producers must have access to a destination to send messages to that destination.
C. ACLs must be added to thebridges.conf file if the access control is enabled for any bridged destination.
D. A message producer sending messages to a bridged destination must also have access to the target
destination(s) defined on the bridge.
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 What are two allowed connection factory types with TIBCO EMS?
A. both
B. xaboth
C. generic
D. xageneric
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 A TIBCO EMS Server has the following configuration in the stores.conf and queues.conf
files:stores.conf
[filestore-1] type=file file=filestore1.db mode=async
[filestore-2] type=file file=filestore2.db mode=sync queues.conf > store=filestore-1 queue1
store=filestore-2 Message swapping is enabled.
What happens when NON_PERSISTENT messages are published on queue1?
A. All the published messages are stored in filestore-2.
B. All the published messages are stored in filestore-1.
C. Messages are moved to filestore-1 when the server reaches certain memory limits.
D. Messages are moved to filestore-2 when the server reaches certain memory limits.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Given the configuration in the acl.conf file: TOPIC=topic.sample1 USER=Bob PERM=subscribe
TOPIC=topic.* Group=engineering PERM=publish,subscribe Which statement is true if Bob is a member
of the engineering group?
A. Bob can only subscribe to topic.sample1.
B. Bob can publish and subscribe to only topic.sample1.
C. Bob can publish and subscribe to both topic.sample1 and topic.sample2.
D. Bob can publish to only topic.sample2 but can subscribe to both topic.sample1 and
topic.sample2.
E. Bob can publish to only topic.sample1 but can subscribe to both topic.sample1 and
topic.sample2.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two statements are true about JMS local transactions? (Choose two.)
A. Closing a transacted session commits its transaction.
B. Session interface provides commit and rollback methods.
C. Consumed messages are acknowledged uponsession.commit.
D. Consumed messages are recovered and redelivered uponsession.commit.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 The following diagram illustrates an enterprise with one-hop zones connecting all the servers in each of
several cities in a fully-connected graph. Zone TK connects all the servers in Tokyo; zone NY connects all
the servers in New York; zone PA connects all the servers in Paris. In addition, the multi-hop zone WO
connects one server in each city. Which three statements are true when a client of server TK3 produces a
message? (Choose three.)
A. When the message reaches PA1, it crosses into zone PA.
B. When the message reaches TK1, it will cross into zone PA.
C. TK1 forwards the message to NY1, which in turn forwards it to PA1.
D. The message will travel one hop to each of the other Tokyo servers.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.16 Which three statements are true about using Third-Party JNDI Naming/Directory Services with TIBCO
EMS? (Choose three.)
A. Destinations cannot be retrieved from third-party naming or directory services.
B. To use a third-party directory service, you must have a JNDI provider for that specific type of service.
C. For third-party services, the only prerequisite is that the objects must have previously been stored
there.
D. EMS supports the storage and retrieval ofConnectionFactories in third-party naming or directory
services.
E. The objects physically stored by EMS coming from a third-party naming/directory service are serialized
objects.
F. The synchronization of administered objects between the EMS Server and the foreign
naming/directory services is automatic.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.17 Which two mappings of JMS header fields to TIBCO Rendezvous data types are correct? (Choose
two.)
A. JMSType to TIBRVMSG_U8
B. JMSTimestamp to TIBRVMSG_U64
C. JMSDeliveryMode to TIBRVMSG_U8
D. JMSRedelivered to TIBRVMSG_STRING
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 Which two sets of commands successfully create a queue connection factory called fact with the URL
pointing to localhost:7222 on the TIBCO EMS Server? (Choose two.)
A. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://7222
setprop factory fact url
B. create factory fact queueurl=tcp://7222
C. create factory queue fact
setprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost7222
D. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost:7222
E. create factory fact queue
addprop factory fact url=tcp://localhost:7222
setprop factory fact url
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 A connection factory is configured as follows: url=tcp://A:7222,tcp://B:7222
connect_attempt_count=2 reconnect_attempt_count=4 Host A is not available. After the client connects to
host B, host B crashes and remains down. How many more times will the client try to connect with host A?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 6
F. 8
Answer: D

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NO.20 The mismatched bandwidth between a message producer and consumer can be solved by setting
which property in the TIBCO EMS configuration?
A. multicast
B. flow_control
C. msg_swapping
D. max_msg_memory
Answer: A

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Exam Code: TB0-124
Exam Name: Tibco (TIBCO® MDM 8 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two properties can you change in the Database screen of the Configurator? (Choose two.)
A. Table Space File Size
B. Database Server Name
C. Database Port ID
D. Dynamic Table Space Location
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which three actions are supported in an Initialization Rulebase type? (Choose three.)
A. propagate some attribute values to child records
B. fill up a dropdown from a datasource
C. limit access to attributes/groups of attributes
D. assign default values to the attributes of a new record
E. create a SoftLink
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 You have made changes to the "allmenu.xml" file to include access to the TIBCO MDM User Guide
Which file must be redeployed to make the User Guide available in the Menu List?
A. ECM.war
B. EML.ear
C. ECM.ear
D. EML.war
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two servers must be running for successful configuration of TIBCO MDM for an Application
Server? (Choose two.)
A. TIBCO Cache Server
B. JMS Server
C. Database Server
D. AS2 Server
E. Webserver
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which activity allows for running a rule in a workflow?
A. EvaluateSubset
B. InterpretCommand
C. EvaluateRuleBase
D. IdentifyActionType
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three actions can you take with subset rules? (Choose three.)
A. select records for synchronization with Backend System
B. select records when importing data into a repository
C. save searches to save the selection criterion for reuse in a record search
D. create a list of records for browsing
E. change the display of the attribute values (i.e. change to upper case on selected records)
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 TIBCO MDM supports which two methods of external system integration? (Choose Two.)
A. Java Messaging Service
B. Java Remote Method Invocation
C. Web Services
D. Enterprise JavaBeans
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which two security types are supported for enterprise user accounts.? (Choose two.)
A. authenticated users
B. passwords
C. authorized users
D. LDAP-based authenticated password
E. Application Server user credentials
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 Which three parameters can be configured for Quick Export? (Choose three.)
A. maximum number of records to be exported
B. the progress bar increment
C. the file extension
D. delivery method
E. the name of the file
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about data synchronization? (Choose Two.)
A. Synchronization Formats define the data format required to get data into the repository.
B. Synchronization Profiles allow you to export a subset of data.
C. Data can only be synchronized incrementally.
D. Data can be synchronized out of the system via JMS.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which statement is true about data import?
A. It can be initiated through web services.
B. It can be initiated through FileWatcher.
C. It must be initiated through the GUI.
D. It creates a new version of the record when a duplicate is imported
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which three statements are true about clustering Application Servers? (Choose three.)
A. All Application Servers in the cluster must have the same JVM version.
B. Each server must have different ports assigned for JNDI registry in the Configurator.
C. Each Application Server should have its own logging setup with a separate logging configuration.
D. The NODEJD environment variable must be unique for each Application Server instance in the cluster.
E. The Application Servers and Database Servers must be installed on the same machine.
F. All the Application Servers in the cluster must be connected to different database instances.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 Click on the two correct index configurations.
A. Option a
B. Option b
C. Option c
D. Option d
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 When must the 'First Pass' advanced rulebase attribute be defined as Required?
A. When conditions must be executed in the context of creating records
B. When a parent record propagates values to a child
C. When the rulebase declares links to relationships
D. When the rulebase creates SoftLink with child records
Answer: B

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NO.15 As part of simple cleansing processes workflow, you want to verify that some attributes are defined and
all attributes are entered in uppercase.
What is the best approach for meeting this requirement?
A. You create a rulebase with two rules: one for checking mandatory attributes and one for transforming
all attributes into uppercase. You call this rulebase in the Mass-Update interface to apply modifications to
a chosen subset of data.
B. You create a rulebase with two rules: one for checking mandatory attributes and one for transforming
all attributes into uppercase. You add an activity in the import workflow, which will call this rulebase file at
the beginning of the process.
C. You pre-process custom functionalities that get the input file, do the check on mandatory attributes,
and put all of them in uppercase before generating a clean file for TIBCO MDM.
D. You ask all source applications to implement the mandatory rules as well as the uppercase condition.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-311
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 for Windows)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THE EXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec
Corporation the Exam materials, questions or answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written
correspondence or agreements between the parties with respect thereto. If you ACCEPT the termsand
conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If you DO NOT ACCEPT this
Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed with this exam.
Answer. pending

NO.2 The Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager supports the use of which database solutions?
(Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
E. Oracle Database 9i
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
Inheritance is turned on for groups LLSCO, Group A, Laptops, and Group 2 (outlined).
Without turning inheritance off, which top level group must be modified to affect users in the Laptop
group?
A. Desktops
B. Laptops
C. Group 1
D. Group A
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Network Threat Protection technologies of the SymantecEndpoint Protection client provide the
primary protection layers against network attacks?
A. ProactiveThreat Protection and Network Access Control
B. ProactiveThreat Protection and Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention and Client Firewall
D. Client Firewall and Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is one reason for disabling learned applications?
A. Learned applications can often expose usernames and passwords.
B. Learned applications require promiscuous mode.
C. Learned applications are often legitimate programs.
D. Learned applications are illegal in some countries.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about Symantec Endpoint Protection TruScan Proactive Threat Scan?
(Choose two.)
A. It inspects encrypted network traffic.
B. It evaluates process behavior.
C. It uses malicious code detection signatures.
D. It blocks attackers' IP addresses.
E.It detects unknown threats.
Answer: BE

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NO.7 In the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console, where do you modifyreplication?
A. Admim > Servers > Server Properties > Directory Servers
B. Admin > Servers > Local Site > Replication Partner
C. Policies > Management Server Lists > Replication
D. Admin > Servers > Database > Tasks
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which label is given to a program or algorithm that replicates itself overa computer
network and usually performs malicious actions?
A. virus
B. zero-day exploit
C. spam
D. worm
Answer: D

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NO.9 The administrators at Lifeline Supply Company have a manufacturing facility that runs
three shifts. Employees at the facility must share computers. The administrators want the
ability to apply different policies/configurations for each shift.
How can the administrator configure the environment to allow policies to be applied to each shift?
(Choose two.)
A. create one group for all computers in the facility
B. create one group for all users in the facility
C. create one group for all computers on each shift
D. create one group for all users on each shift
E. switch the clients to computer mode
F. switch the clients to user mode
Answer: DF

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NO.10 Which page is used to create login accounts to the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager console?
A. Policies
B. Home
C. Admin
D. Clients
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which fivecomponents are incorporated in Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Choose five.)
A. antispam
B. application and device control
C. full disk encryption
D. host integrity
E. antivirus
F. antispyware
G. content filtering
H. intrusion prevention
I. client firewall
J. asset management
Answer: BEFHI

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NO.12 A company has a large sales force who travel with laptops. They want to block USB
access on the laptops when they are disconnected from the corporate network.
Which two things are required to achievethis? (Choose two.)
A. multiple sites
B. multiple locations
C. firewall policy
D. device control policy
E. host integrity policy
Answer: BD

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NO.13 What are the three configurable actions in TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan? (Choose three.)
A. log suspect process only
B. set a public SNMP trap
C. quarantine suspect process
D. terminate the suspect process
E. generate dump of system state
F. suspend the suspect process
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 Where can you edit a non-shared policy?
A. Clients
B. Monitors
C. Home
D. Admin
Answer: A

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NO.15 Lifeline Supply Company wants to reduce or eliminatethe HelpDesk callsthey receivedue to end users
modifying, moving, or deleting configuration files.
Which component of Symantec Endpoint Protection will allow the IT administrator to prevent users from
altering configuration files?
A. TruScan ProactiveThreat Scan
B. Device Control
C. Application Control
D. Host Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.16 An administrator believes that client computers are running different software versions of Symantec
Endpoint Protection.
Which report type shows which client computers are running different software versions?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

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NO.17 THE DISCLOSURE TO YOU OF THIS EXAMINATION ("THEEXAM") AND ANY
ACCOMPANYING EXAMINATION MATERIALS AND ANY DERIVATIVES THEREOF
(COLLECTIVELY REFERRED TO AS THE "EXAM MATERIALS") IS SUBJECT TO THE
TERMSAND CONDITIONS OF THE SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY
AGREEMENT PROVIDED HEREIN. BY CLICKING ON THE "START" BUTTON IN
RESPONSE TO THE ACCEPTANCE QUERY, OR BY OTHERWISE TAKING THE
EXAMINATION, YOU ARE CONSENTING TO BE BOUND BY THIS AGREEMENT. BY
CLICKING ON THE "EXIT" BUTTON, YOU CHOOSE NOT TO AGREE AND WILL BE LET OUT OF THE
EXAM.
IF THESE TERMSARE CONSIDERED AN OFFER, ACCEPTANCE IS EXPRESSLY
LIMITED TO THESE TERMS.
SYMANTEC CORPORATION CONFIDENTIALITY AGREEMENT
This is an agreement ("Agreement") between You and Symantec Corporation that sets forth the terms and
conditions of your use and disclosure of the Exam Materials.
You hereby understand, acknowledge, and agree:
1.That Symantec Corporation spends substantial sums of time and money in developing and
administering its Exam Materials and labs and carefully guards their integrity and
confidentiality;
2.That the questions and answers of the Exam are the exclusiveand confidential property of Symantec
Corporation and are protected by Symantec Corporation's intellectual property rights;
3.That You may not disclose the Exam questions or answers or discuss any of the content of the Exam
Materials with any person, without prior written approval of Symantec Corporation;
4.Not toremovefromtheexamination roomany ExamMaterialsof any kind providedto Youor
any other material related to the Exam, including, without limitation, any notes or calculations;
5.Not to copy or attempt to make copies (written, photocopied, or otherwise) of any Exam
Material, including, without limitation, any exam questions or answers;
6.Not to sell, license, distribute, giveaway, or obtain from any other source other Symantec Corporation
the Exam materials, questions or Answers.
You hereby acknowledge and agree that violation of any of these provisions will cause
irreparable harm to Symantec Corporation for which monetary remedies may be inadequate, and that
Symantec Corporation shall be entitled, without waiving any other rights or remedies, to take all
appropriate actions to remedy or prevent such disclosure or misuse, including obtaining an immediate
injunction. Neither this Agreement nor any right granted hereunder shallbe assignable or otherwise
transferableby You. ThisAgreement maybe modifiedonlyby a writing signed by both parties. This
Agreement shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the State of California, without giving effect
to any choice of law rule. This Agreement represents the entire Agreement of the parties hereto pertaining
to the subject matter of this
Agreement, and supersedes any and all prior oral discussions and/or written correspondence or
agreements between the parties with respect thereto.
If you ACCEPT the termsand conditions of this Agreement, click 'Yes, I agree.', and begin this exam. If
you DO NOT ACCEPT this Agreement, you must click 'No, I do not agree.', and will not be able to proceed
with this exam.
Answer.pending

NO.18 What controls access from one network segment to another?
A. hub
B. MTA
C. sensor
D. firewall
Answer: D

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NO.19 Lifeline Supply Company found during a recent audit that the current security solution for
theirdesktops and servers missed several rootkitswithin their environment. These rootkits have
compromised several company computers.
Which protection technology in Symantec Endpoint Protection could remediate these rootkits?
A. Host Integrity
B. Antivirus and Antispyware Protection
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Application and Device Control
Answer: B

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NO.20 A computer is configured in Mixed Control mode. The administrator creates and applies a firewall policy
to the computer that has a rule that allows FTP trafficabove the blue line and another rule that blocks
LDAP traffic below the blue line. On the computer, local rules are created to allow LDAP trafficand block
FTP.
Which traffic flow behavior should be expected on the local computer?
A. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare allowed.
B. Both FTP and LDAP trafficare blocked.
C. FTP is blocked and LDAP is allowed.
D. FTP is allowed and LDAP is blocked.
Answer: A

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